Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?

it resulted in the german invasion of other european countries.

it resulted in the german invasion of italy.

the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.

the participants denied hitler permission to take the sudetenland.

The best option is the first option: It resulted in the German invasion of other European countries.We know this because the Munich Agreement was a settlement permitting Nazi Germany's annexation of portions of Czechoslovakia along the country's borders mainly inhabited by German speakers, for which a new territorial designation "Sudetenland" was coined. That is why is the first option. 

Because broadest terms allows the law flexibility depending on changing society and circumstances.

Yes, reasons why is sectionalism compromise of 1850 and secession i hope this