How did a wealth gap occur
during urbanization? Was this
avoidable? Why or why not?

Notably, the recent rise of wealth inequality is almost entirely due to the rise of the share of wealth held by the top 0.1% – which went from 7% in 1979 to 22% in 2012. ... Third, the increased concentration of wealth at the top is driven by diversified wealth accumulation and surging (top) incomes.

Explanation:

Several explanations for increasing income inequality have been proposed, including skill-biased technological change brought about by computers and modern telecommunications, the expansion of global goods and labour markets, and changes in countries’ skill and age distributions. Yet one pattern has gone largely unnoticed

Explanation:

#2 the answer is d

#3 the answer is a

#4 the answer is b

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