I need the answer ASAP
Why did the founding fathers tie property qualifications to voting?

Explanation:

The founding fathers tie property qualifications to voting, thinking  that a power belongs to them.

It is the simple answer that someone could demonstrate as an excuse of power and more qualifications be given.

This is what they expected; the unique factor of political, social and economic qualifications to be taken and belong to them with a persistent dominated way against the minorities.

no options provided, here,but the answer to this question is often: a historian cites a japanese newspaper article published a year after the end of world war ii in order to draw conclusions about the effect of the war on the japanese economy.

clearly from the answer, the historian alludes to historical sources,and records to aid in analyzing and drawing conclusion on the effect of the war on the economy of japan.

explanation:

i think it is in quadrant 4.

the five year plans were part of a command economy. there was little choice in what would be emphasized for the current 5 year period.

the answer to democracy or totalitarianism is a bit harder. in stalin's time, russia was totalitarian. now that's not entirely true. putin has moved towards at least the boundary.