The paragraph about Justinian I tells that he was the last king of Byzantia to speak Latin. After that time the empire came under strong Greek influence. Why did the Byzantine Empire become more Greek than Roman? To answer this question you may have to look at the map of the Byzantine Empire. If necessary, reread the paragraphs you have just studied.

The educated elites of part of the empire spoke Greek because before its conquest by Rome it had been ruled by Greek states. After the fall of the western part of the empire, this part lost its ties with Rome and with the Latin language.

Explanation: :)

i am confused to what the passeage is other wies i would be able to answer your question my bad sorry but when you starte your answer use i think he used those terms because describe and then state your thinking its more of only you can answer that question because we can not answer what you are thinking.

therefore no one will be declared righteous in god's sight by the works of the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of our sin.   romans 3: 20