Why did the mughal empire decline earlier than the ottoman empire

Some of the primary reasons for Ottoman decline were:

The Rapid Demise of the Safavid Empire. Abbas I, fearing plots, had removed all suitable heirs. The succession of a weak grandson began a process of dynastic decline. Internal strife and foreign invasions shook the state. In 1772 Isfahan fell to Afghani invaders. An adventurer, Nadir Khan Afshar, emerged from the following turmoil as shah in 1736, but his dynasty and its successors were unable to restore imperial authority.

Aurangzeb and the Fall of the Empire Aurangzeb was the last great Mughal emperor. Although he brought a larger area under Mughal rule than ever before, his constant wars left the empire dangerously overextended, isolated from its strong Rajput allies, and with a population that was largely opposed to his reign. His last twenty five years were spent fighting in the Deccan in the south, and losing territory to rival states.

The way this small state - large state compromise guards against tyranny is that small states and large states have one note: i am sorry but i was not able to give you the full answer. but i got this answer from