The text suggests that the industrial revolution of the eighteenth century occurred in northwestern Europe, and not in China, India, or the Ottoman Empire in part because of how their governments treated two segments of their populations: scholars and peasant farmers. How did these governments view scholars and peasant farmers?

Explanation:

Agriculture was the mainstay of the Chinese, Indian, and Ottoman Empire, in the 18th century. The governments hence focused tax burden on farmers.

The scholars were not the focal point. Also, the governments did not give support to the farmers in times of agrarian conflicts.

If the governments supported - both with money and favourable policies - the industrial revolution of the time would have been present in the 3 countries.

study of past cultures

yes te ottoma empire did fall in the   end but something emerged the answer to this question is turkey turkey ermeged   after the ottoma empires falll