History, 12.04.2020 04:00 jebjeb6135
During the early phases of both World War I and II, the United States refused to formally participate, with many politicians stating that the wars were, in fact, “European squabbles”. To what extent is this characterization of these wars accurate? Are the first and second world wars truly global crises (in that countries all over the world actively and willfully chose to participate), or are they European wars that demonstrate the fundamental flaws of Imperialism (in that the international communities were forced into participating by European colonial authorities, thus needlessly expanding what were “European squabbles”)? Give reasons and examples to support your answer.
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