Why did the american colonists believe the establishment of the vice-admiralty courts after the french and indian war violate their english civil rights?

1- in bradbury's  fahrenheit 451, all books are banned and burned upon discovery. in the nazi germany, books considered to be subversive to the regime would be burned to keep the population from generating ideologies that could challenge nazism.

2- was bradbury correct in his literal interpretation of  “where they burn books, they will also ultimately burn people.”? in some way, yes. when knowledge is not only limited, but also controlled, the people tied to it are led to their demise. just like in the novel, people in nazi germany who owned  subversive books were punished not only by the burning of their property, but also by the discrimination that followed after such a public form of consequence. if a person was seen being confiscated  subversive  books, they may be considered as an ally to the jews, which meant pretty much the same as being the enemy back then. because of the extreme exclusion and suffering that followed this punishment, it's almost like dying a slow death.

in this way, the phrase  “where they burn books, they will also ultimately burn people.” is both literal and figurative.

explanation:

mark brainliest and have a great day!

well we know that it was fought between america and the united kingdom based on that i assume people consider the second war of independence because brtiain and england (uk)   the uk is made up of england and i assume thats why it was considered that

) the chinese armed forces had been removed from the city

possible the invasion of room could have been avodiable but the people of rome were to stubboron and to wealthy the kingdoms saw them as a threat if they dialred it downa   bit ten i dont think they wouldnt failed   china was not iacvvdoaible they caused war to much and were out of hand therefor that must have happened india i dont really know it could of