When hitler sent troops into the rhineland in 1936 and austria in 1938, other european nations
responded with immediate armed resistance.
united to protect czechoslovakia.
offered no resistance.
convened the munich conference

Offered no resistance.

Explanation:

Because of tactics by Hitler (ex. Blitzkrieg) other European nations lacked both the manpower, environment, and time to help other nations when they were attacked in the beginning of World War 2. In conventions like the Munich Conference, they were even forced to negotiate territories like Czechoslovakia with Germany.

This is not correct statement.

Explanation: United Kingdom opted for strategy called "appeasement", i.e. conservative government of Neville Chamberlain tried to satisfy German (i.e. NSDAP´s or Hitler´s) requirements. There was no "immediate armed resistance" neither in the UK nor in France. There was no strong opposition in Germany either. Hitler was legally elected, he had enormous support in Germany and in Europe nobody wanted an armed confrontation. Munich conference (1938) was a way how to "transfer" Czechoslovakian "Sudetenland" to the III Reich in a "democratic" way Munich conference took place among Britain, France, Germany and Italy...all the parties involved approved occupation of Sudetenland by Germans.

the answer is "focused on"

lol gave an answer 1 week that's the answer for those who need it in the future xd

the answer to your question is a because laws act as guidelines as to what is accepted in society. without it there would be conflicts between social groups and communities. it serves as a norm of conduct for citizens.