How does locke’s argument about tyranny compare to jefferson’s argument

John Locke defines Tyranny in relation to Liberty and the exercise of power beyond the right. On the other hand Thomas Jefferson is talking about the Law and only a definition between a government and the citizens.

Explanation:

John Locke defined Tyranny as "usurpation is the exercise of power which another hath a right to, so tyranny is the exercise of power beyond right, which nobody can have a right to; and this is making use of the power any one has in his hands, not for the good of those who are under it, but for his own private, separate advantage. When the governor, however entitled, makes not the law, but his will, the rule, and his commands and actions are not directed to the preservation of the properties of his people, but the satisfaction of his own ambition, revenge, covetousness, or any other irregular passion."

On the other hand Thomas Jefferson defined Tyranny as "that which is legal for the government but illegal for the citizenry."

during the middle ages bibles and most christian literature was written in latin i think that’s the answer you are looking for

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