What does more and newer food equal in the 16th century?

The reason why more and newer food were equal in the 16th century was because of the explorations and the newly gained territories in South America and North America.

Once the Europeans set foot on the New World they encountered lot of plants with which they were not familiar earlier. They were plants that were very useful, good as a prime source of food, as spices, as delicacies, as additions. Because of this lot of new species of cultivated plants were introduced into Europe. This introduction of new species was very popular, so the production of food on the continent started to equal the import of agricultural products from the new world, as well as producing them on European soil.

part a. there were 250 teenagers surveyed (100% of tenagers = 250)therefore 1 % = 250/100 = 2.5 76% = 1% x 76 = 2.5 x 76 = 190 teenagers of the 250 surveyed liked burgerspart b: jane surveyed 25% (which is equal to 50 teenagers, i.e. a quarter of the teenagers surveyed is 50) to get 100% we simply get 4 quarters, i.e. multiply 50 by 4 = 200 teenagers were surveyed by jane. part c: it is impossible to give an example where a percentage is greater than 100%, since, by definition , percentage means "per 100".

thomas jefferson is the answer