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Is the source of the passage above likely to be biased? this, then, is held to be the duty of the man of wealth: first, to set an example of modest, unostentatious living, shunning display or extravagance; and, after doing so, to consider all surplus revenues which come to him simply as trust funds, which he is called upon to administer to produce the most beneficial results for the community- the man of wealth thus becoming the mere trustee and agent for his power brethren, bringing to their service his superior wisdom, experience and ability to administer, doing for them better than they would or could do for themselves. - andrew carnegie, "wealth," 1889 a. no, because the passage is written by a disinterested party. b. yes, because the author presents both sides of an argument. c. yes, because the author is an example of the people he writes about. d. no, because the passage prevents only objective facts.
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