Considering Bottom’s chronic use of malapropisms and the conclusions made about Bottom’s view of women, what point might Shakespeare have been trying to make in Act 1 Scene 2 about his own views on gender roles during his lifetime?

What reasons does the speaker provide to support his viewpoint or claim in what to the slave is the fourth of july i read to speech and but i just don't fully understand the question i just want to make sure i get it right so to explain that the question is asking me to do. and you!