Which statement is not a reason that shakespeare may have written the tragedy of julius caesar for the elizabethan audience?
shakespeare wanted to illustrate that elizabeth i and julius caesar had nothing in common.

shakespeare wanted to show the ways that a successful authority could be toppled by the people.

shakespeare wanted to make fun of a society that was also divided by status.

shakespeare wanted to create controversy by showing the issues that might be caused by england’s increasing power.

Shakespeare wanted to show the ways that a successful authority could be toppled by the people.

It is unlikely that Shakespeare wrote this play in order to show the ways in which a successful authority could be toppled by the people. However, the other options are likely to be true. It is possible that Shakespeare wanted to show that Elizabeth I and Julius Caesar had nothing in common, as well as the fact that England's increasing power could lead them to have the same issues. Finally, it is possible that Shakespeare wanted to make fun of a society that was divided by status.

the answer is fantasy