Why did dystopian fiction become popular at the end of the 20th century?

answer:

because people start learning 69

explanation:

wich is the answer take or leave it lol

although dystopian literature and references have been around for ages (literally), the genre got a big shot in the arm during the rise and reign of realism in the mid-nineteenth to early twentieth centuries. the ancient book of job is most remembered for job's restoration after his extreme suffering--a book with a happy ending--yet, many of the arguments in it deal with the question of why the wicked prosper; have happy, luxurious lives; and then die quietly in their sleep contrasted with the prevailing "wisdom" that evil people reap their just deserves. this look at the ugly reality versus the romanticized ideal is a typical trait of dystopian literature and has been around a long time, anchoring our dreams, ambitions, and hopes to the world as we actually see it. portraying the world as we actually see it was, and continues to be, the aim of realism. that aim matched many dystopian writings to a t.

the age of alienation after wwi, the rise of socialist revolutions around the world during that time period, and the fears of the cold war after that kept the ground fertile for stories that painted the bleak side of things--the reasons for change, often violent change. the rise of marketing that is built on people being discontent with the solutions to everyday problems and existing products, contributed, and still does, to an environment in which the conditions that bring discontentment are seen to justify personal and societal action. the axiom "don't fix what's not broken" requires that we see things as broken in order to make the changes that are demanded by our discontentment. so, dystopian literature and art continue to draw a strong audience.

there's a lot more to this--especially in psychological and sociological terms--and i am interested in seeing what others have to say.

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hey there

use of language is very important in order to write in a good way. each literary genre has its different exploitation of language and, therefore, many differences and similarities can emerge. shakespeare's work (romeo and juliet) is a sample of a drama. its language is full of dialogue to describe the beauty of first love in people; everything it's pink color. it briefly describes fictional scenes and situations. on the other hand, the calypso borealis, by john muirs, it's narrative essay: its language is full of descriptions to describe an experience, a real experience. hyperbole is not used as in drama genre. he falls in love with discovering a real place and his direct feelings.

hope this !

f yes, , mark brainliest : )

have a good night.

answer: i am not sure but i think you should go for c

explanation: