The Fibonacci series can be computed as follows, F(n) = F(n 1) + F(n 2) (1) In class, we showed how this can be done in O(log n) computation time. Now suppose that the de nition is changed in the following way, F0(n) = F0(n 1) + F0(n 2) + F0(n 3) + F0(n 4) (2) Can F0(n) be computed in O(log n)? If yes, please show how it can be done. If no, show a counterexample where this fails. Please provide your rationale for both. Assume that F0(0) = 0; F0(1) = 1; F0(2) = 1; F0(3) = 1.

no. when the asker posts the question they can make a question worth what ever they think is a fair price. although it must be within the limit of the points they currently own. 5 is the minimum number of points a question can be worth. if a question is complicated or has lots of parts to it, it is better to make it worth more because more people will be more willing to answer.

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