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Business, 18.08.2019 00:10 Milan1025

Larkin co. reported a taxable loss of $10,000 in 20x1, its first year of operations, and taxable income of $0 in 20x2. larkin had no temporary or permanent differences in either 20x1 or 20x2. at the end of 20x1 larkin believed that 30% of the operating loss carryforward would not be realized; therefore, a valuation allowance of $1,200 (30% of $10,000 nol × 40% tax rate) was necessary. at the end of 20x2, larkin believes that the valuation allowance is no longer necessary. assuming a tax rate of 40%, larkin should report total income tax expense (benefit) in 20x1 and 20x2 of: a. $0 in 20x1 and $0 in 20x2.b. $(4,000) in 20x1 and $0 in 20x2.c. $(2,800) in 20x1 and $0 in 20x2.d. $(2,800) in 20x1 and $(1,200) in 20x2.

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Larkin co. reported a taxable loss of $10,000 in 20x1, its first year of operations, and taxable inc...
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