Hi, I'm stuck on these questions. Thanks in advance :) 1a. If an ovum is released by the ovary but is NOT swept into the infundibulum of the uterine tube by the fimbriae, where do you think the ovum would go before it became non-viable? 1b. Could the ‘lost' ovum mentioned above still be fertilised if sperm reach it before it expires? 2.Consider what would happen to the uterine tube if a fertilised ovum implanted there instead of in the uterus (as happens in the case of ectopic pregnancy) ..

If the ovary does not enter the fallopian tube, it falls into the abdominal cavity and cannot be fertilized unless it finds it's way back to the uterus. Ectopic or tubular pregnancy would cause the fallopian tube to swell and eventually rupture.

Explanation:

When ovaries are released by the oviduct, it enters the fallopian tube, fertilizes and moves to the uterus where it is implanted. But if the ovum does not enter the fallopian tube, which could be as a result of an abnormality or the fallopian tube removed to prevent pregnancy or for medical reasons, then the ovum enters the abdominal cavity.

Pregnancy is still possible in this case if the ovum finds its way back to the uterus or IVF is been administered to the patient to induce pregnancy.

Ectopic or tubular pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg is implanted in the fallopian tube. This is sometimes the case in the early weeks of pregnancy but eventually moves to the uterus. In severe cases, it would remain in the tube which in turn would make the tube swell and rupture.

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