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Biology, 18.11.2020 17:40 AngChell21

A man has a condition where all of his gametes undergo nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes in meiosis I, but meiosis II proceeds normally. He mates with a woman who produces all normal gametes. What is the probability that the fertilized egg will develop into a child with Turner syndrome (XO)? Assume all gametes and zygotes are viable. Answer is 1/2. Can you explain why?

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